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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 07:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Moderate liberals, if any use leftist Quora, how do you feel about being associated with those who enjoy burning American flags, supporting Hamas, having men competing against women in sports, open borders, green new deal and general wokery?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.